I've been reading this web site that says that basically all Slavic people, Czechs, Slovaks, Russians etc. originally came from an area that is now part of the Ukraine and Poland: home.iprimus.com.au/microweb/slavic/ Does this theory make sense to you? Is it controversial or are there other theories? There was a poster on this forum that originally spurred me to look into this when he said that Czechs and Slovaks all came from the same place at one time years ago. Fascinating stuff to a guy brought up in the USA where not much Slavic history was ever discussed. Dan
Yes, Dan, it makes a sense. Some 1000 years ago the Slavic languages was so close, that people from Moravia understand without problems people from north Greece. The language called staroslověnština, Oldslavic language. It is bad undertanding for present people, but time before it functioned. Theory says, that Slavic "great-homeland" is belong rivers Visla, Pripjat and Volha. Old Romans called the people living there Veneds. At 4.century they was under press of Huns and move to west. At 8. century lived at territory from Russian plains to island Rugen (Baltic sea), (probably) Nurnberg, Salzburg, Illiria (Croatia), Bulgaria, nothern Greece. Later Slavs was pushed back by German tribes and Frank kings (Charles the Great, Lothar, Otto I. etc). Best rergards Karel